factorial
The theorem that $binom {n} {k} = frac {n!} {k! (n-k)!}$ already assumes $0!$ is defined to be $1$. Otherwise this would be restricted to $0 <k < n$. A reason that we do define $0!$ to be $1$ is so that

The main criteria is that it be asked in bad faith. ;-). I''m not entirely insincere: The question is rather how can we tell that, and a big part of the answer is "context"; it''s not mainly the
What I would say is that you can multiply any non-zero number by infinity and get either infinity or negative infinity as long as it isn''t used in any mathematical proof. Because multiplying by infinity is
Even after updating the original post there remain at least two different questions: How does morality relate to duty and inclination according to Kant? Kant''s Groundwork for the
In general, people don''t confuse the means with the ends. Instead, what happens is that people get so wrapped up in the means that they fail to see that the means aren''t accomplishing
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